Many believed that in order to construct a team in the post-Kylian Mbappé era, Paris Saint-Germain will have Xavi Simons in their roster for the upcoming campaign. For the time being, nevertheless, the athlete might not choose to be a member of the team.

Recently, there has been discussion regarding the 21-year-old’s future. It has been reported that teams like Chelsea, Barcelona, and Arsenal are keeping an eye on him. There is increasing conjecture as the summer transfer window approaches regarding the possibility that PSG will get an alluring offer from one of these teams.

With 42 appearances in all competitions, Simons has been making waves in the Bundesliga. With nine goals and fifteen assists under his belt, it’s understandable that other elite European teams are keen to try and entice him away. They may even get their chance.

According to Fabrice Hawkins of RMC Sport, Simons has decided not to play for PSG again this summer because he is not motivated to stay in the French city.

In order to explore the potential of him staying in the Bundesliga, RB Leipzig and PSG are currently negotiating a final transfer; Premier League teams are also involved.

Given that the Dutchman’s contract expires in 2027, it will be intriguing to see how this new story concludes. Nevertheless, given that Simons is thought to be a crucial member of PSG, this is a significant step.